inspired by some folks who were arguing about the anti-Pulse protesters yesterday who were arrested. They naturally maintain their free speech rights were violated. The cops maintain they were not, as they were not telling them to leave the premises, but were merely telling them which space they could not occupy (which was disobeyed).
SCOTUS has allowed government to restrict when and where someone may express themselves, just not restrict the content itself. So this is established law. The question for debate is - should this be the way the law is interpreted. Should freedom of speech come with limitations as to where/when, or was SCOTUS "overreaching" in its interpretation of government powers re: first amendment.
Is establishing a "free speech zone" detrimental to free speech?
Poll Results
Option | Votes |
It is government overreach | 6 |
<insert contenderizer's response here> | 2 |
It is a necessary accommodation | 1 |
I have a more nuanced opinion | 1 |
Other | 0 |
― Charles "Butt" Stanton (Neanderthal), Wednesday, 14 June 2017 14:22 (seven years ago)