Could you express all your contemporary thoughts in Ancient Greek?

Message Bookmarked
Bookmark Removed
I don't mean things like proper nouns, brand names or whatever, what I mean is, just things like what you would normally write down in your diary or whatever as a modern person, could you express all that in Ancient Greek? You may argue that I cannot express such things in modern English, but please be sympathetic to my stupid question.

m.., Wednesday, 2 February 2005 04:50 (twenty years ago)

In Latin, yeah. Fututiones!

Jordan (Jordan), Wednesday, 2 February 2005 04:53 (twenty years ago)

yeah, you could. anybody who tells you that concept x or thought y cannot be expressed in language z is full of it. languages change, but they don't evolve in terms of expressive fitness. writing and widespread literacy have had definite effects on how we use language, but the ancient greeks had both those things.

fortunate hazel (f. hazel), Wednesday, 2 February 2005 06:45 (twenty years ago)

Νο.

Λεεετερ φαν δεν, Wednesday, 2 February 2005 06:58 (twenty years ago)

I suppose I thought that because when you read, say, 'The Odyssey' or something, it doesn't seem concerned with some of the things you take for granted that a modern piece of literature would be concerned with. Like the minuitae of psychological states and things. But I think you're right, Hazel, most languages could express the same things. But if a language is comparatively limited, like say it only has 1000 words compared to 100,000, doesn't that mean that it might express less?

m.., Wednesday, 2 February 2005 07:20 (twenty years ago)

And then that point about Latin, made by Jordan ... if you consider say Catullus, that kind of writing does seem concerned with details of psychological responses and so on, and so that would make me think, in Latin you can express more of your 'modern' thoughts. That's probably wrong, but, etc.

m.., Wednesday, 2 February 2005 07:22 (twenty years ago)

Linguists and academics must write about this sort of thing, but I wouldn't know where to look.

m.., Wednesday, 2 February 2005 07:23 (twenty years ago)

Any of you big boys ready to ride the rocket?

Boss Hog, Wednesday, 2 February 2005 12:05 (twenty years ago)

Expression includes forms of rhetoric - and every language can do different things with them (and maybe make some new ones or have no need for some). Certainly the choice of words to express concepts allows for alliterative and phonetic similarities that can't necessarily be translated into other languages but allows for interesting and deep intellectual ideas. Puns (for better or worse) often can't be truly translated to other languages without losing either the meaning or the form. Most poetry that is translated requires compromise of either translating the words or trying to render the style.

Girolamo Savonarola, Wednesday, 2 February 2005 12:49 (twenty years ago)

The question therefore is not could you express these thoughts, but rather, how much does the quality of the language affect how you choose to express these thoughts.

Girolamo Savonarola, Wednesday, 2 February 2005 12:50 (twenty years ago)

Puns (for better or worse) often can't be truly translated to other languages without losing either the meaning or the form

My proudest day in highschool French class was managing to write a pun in French - that makes no sense at all in English:

"The TV isn't working!"

"Yes, that's because I broke its legs"

caitlin (caitlin), Wednesday, 2 February 2005 12:52 (twenty years ago)

Periphrasis! Epiphrasis! Metaphor!

Aimless (Aimless), Wednesday, 2 February 2005 22:05 (twenty years ago)

I couldn't express my contemp thoughts in ancient greek, but this is only because my greek is for shit. I have this crazy plan to start writing a diary in Latin: partly because it would keep my latin up, partly because that way I'd get to use the abusive latin they never taught us in school (all out of Catullus!), partly because... um, it would just be cool.

cis (cis), Thursday, 3 February 2005 01:23 (twenty years ago)

I am pretty sure I couldn't keep a decent diary in sixteen-century English, even. I should plausibly try, it might help with revision or something.

Gravel Puzzleworth (Gregory Henry), Thursday, 3 February 2005 02:32 (twenty years ago)

But I think you're right, Hazel, most languages could express the same things. But if a language is comparatively limited, like say it only has 1000 words compared to 100,000, doesn't that mean that it might express less?

First thing you have to do when making a comparison between languages based on word count is figure out what counts as a word and what doesn't. So, Modern English vs. Ancient Greek. English has a pretty massive lexicon, but Greek is more inflected. For English do we count the number of words the average person knows or the number of words in a dictionary? For Greek, does each inflected form of a word count as a separate word since it encapsulates a discrete meaning to a Greek speaker? You could probably hash this out, but that's an easy example. Next try word counts for Chinese and Greenlandic... Chinese (Mandarin) has almost zero inflection while Greenlandic is an agglutinative language... most of the lexicality of Greenlandic resides in affixes and you end up with big long words instead of sentences. So what's a good working definition of a "word" that is meaningful in all languages? And you haven't even gotten into how to count borrowed words, which easily make up the vast majority of the English lexicon.

What I'm getting at is that you can't really meaningfully compare languages by comparing a subset of similar features of the two languages. Different languages make use of various elements of language to varying degrees. Simplicity in one area is usually made up for through added complexity in another, and in the end it's a wash.

Humans speak different languages, but the features of our bodies that allow us to use language are all the same. You can assume that any natural language has equal fitness for the purpose of expressing the things humans need to express.

fortunate hazel (f. hazel), Thursday, 3 February 2005 02:46 (twenty years ago)

Puns (for better or worse) often can't be truly translated to other languages without losing either the meaning or the form.

The important thing here is not that puns are often untranslatable, which is a consequence of what makes puns puns, but the fact that every language has puns. Even if a given pun is untranslatable, the concept of wordplay is easily understood by speakers of any language.

fortunate hazel (f. hazel), Thursday, 3 February 2005 02:48 (twenty years ago)

Whorfian Hypothesis vs. the Chomsky school.

The Chomsky school indicates that all ideas should be translatable and that your thinking is not defined by the language you know. It may be directed or influenced by its nuances, which I think is what hazel is suggesting.

People still cling to the Whorfian thing though. How many times have you heard about all the words Eskimos have for snow?

mikef (mfleming), Thursday, 3 February 2005 07:18 (twenty years ago)

(Eskimos and snow.)

I suppose I thought that because when you read, say, 'The Odyssey' or something, it doesn't seem concerned with some of the things you take for granted that a modern piece of literature would be concerned with. Like the minuitae of psychological states and things.

That perhaps says more about Homer (or us) than about the Greek language. I'm told (I really haven't read much) that the dramatists are the Greeks to go to for psychological probing. But still, just because the "psychological novel" is all the rage in our culture and wasn't in ancient Greece doesn't mean it couldn't be done. Harry Potter has been translated into Ancient Greek, after all.

Casuistry (Chris P), Thursday, 3 February 2005 07:56 (twenty years ago)

That thing about Harry Potter is interesting ... not that Harry Potter is exactly representative of ... I mean, could you translate Knut Hamsun into Ancient Greek? Probably - but it is interesting, because when you think about Nietzsche, and tons of other people, claiming all that stuff about the 'health' of the Ancient Greek perspective, would they be willing to accept that you could translate the weaknesses and vacillations of the 'modern psyche' into Ancient Greek?

m.., Thursday, 3 February 2005 08:39 (twenty years ago)

It may be directed or influenced by its nuances, which I think is what hazel is suggesting.

Yeah, one distillation of the original question could be asking "is the strong interpretation of the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis correct?" to which my answer is "no, but the weak interpretation seems to be supported by research into the matter."

People still cling to the Whorfian thing though.

Well, people still make extensive use of Freuduian metaphors, even thought there's no evidence to support our minds actually working that way. Similarly, people have ideas about how language works that are totally wrong but unlikely to cause problems in daily life. In fact, prescriptive English grammar is often hilariously wrong but socially necessary.

fortunate hazel (f. hazel), Thursday, 3 February 2005 08:46 (twenty years ago)

Have you studied Greek? One of the first things that you learn is this grammatical formation that loosely translates into "on the one hand... and on the other" but really is closer to "hey, here are two things that are somehow in balance". It's pure rhetoric, and I suppose we don't know if people used it when casually speaking or what. But it makes it seem as if ancient Greek is this language of pure rhetorical balance and bliss, which goes along with many aspects of Greek philosophy.

But compare this with English's loosey-goosey grammar which easily allows teh all sorts of shiznit to go down, dig?

Casuistry (Chris P), Thursday, 3 February 2005 08:50 (twenty years ago)

Well, if you pick a Greek phrase that is particularly poetic and compare it with a mishmash of English slang, you're not going to get a really accurate comparison of Modern English and Ancient Greek.

Let me repeat that you can't meaningfully compare languages by comparing a subset of features of the two languages. You have to compare them in toto. You better believe Ancient Greek had slang, just as Modern English has plenty of rhetorically elegant turns of phrase.

fortunate hazel (f. hazel), Thursday, 3 February 2005 09:23 (twenty years ago)

my father teaches ancient greek, i may put this question to him later. i am fairly confident there is no ancient greek word for "viagra".

weasel diesel (K1l14n), Thursday, 3 February 2005 10:39 (twenty years ago)

i am fairly confident there is no ancient greek word for "viagra".

Some things need no translation.

Girolamo Savonarola, Thursday, 3 February 2005 13:51 (twenty years ago)

First you need to establish what you mean by "expressing a thought" -- i.e. how this is accomplished, how you know when it is, whether it matters if others agree with you about it being accomplished, etc... In other words, no easy task in and of itself.

Clarke B. (Clarke B.), Friday, 4 February 2005 00:55 (twenty years ago)

I imagine it would take longer and much of it would consist in coining phrases and neologisms to avoid getting bogged down. I assume that is how we have ended up with our contemporary vocabulary in English, btw.

Michael White (Hereward), Friday, 4 February 2005 00:58 (twenty years ago)


You must be logged in to post. Please either login here, or if you are not registered, you may register here.