dropped third strikes

Message Bookmarked

Bookmark Removed

just about every other rule in baseball you can at least trace back to some kind of logical situation or imbalance, but for the life of me i can't work out what circumstance made the lightbulb go on over somebody's head to say "hey, if the catcher drops the third strike, the batter gets to try and make it to first!"

i mean it's a slippery slope, no? "if the first pitch is a curveball fouled down the left-field line, batter and pitcher play rock paper scissors"

― You've Got to Pick Up Every Stitch (tracerhand), Sunday, 12 September 2004 02:39 (twenty-one years ago)

No, it makes perfect sense if you consider the fact that for a strikeout, the catcher gets credit for the putout. Like any other putout attempt, if the ball is dropped then it doesn't count, and any runners can attempt to advance at their own risk.

― Barry Bruner (Barry Bruner), Sunday, 12 September 2004 04:01 (twenty-one years ago)

Brunner OTM, and also on it in a less verbose manner than I would've managed. HOWEVER, given that sound logic, why then is a dropped third strike w/ 1st base occupied automatically an out - shouldn't the runner(s) be allowed the chance to reach base safely if the putout wasn't clean?

― David R. (popshots75`), Sunday, 12 September 2004 12:31 (twenty-one years ago)

Ha - Bruner was so OTM he earned interest in the form of an extra N! Don't spend it all in one place, dood.

― David R. (popshots75`), Sunday, 12 September 2004 12:31 (twenty-one years ago)

HOWEVER, given that sound logic, why then is a dropped third strike w/ 1st base occupied automatically an out

Just a guess, but maybe it's an infield fly type of rule. I.e., if the rule didn't exist, what would prevent catchers from always dropping the third strike and trying to initiate a double play on the basepaths?

― mattbot (mattbot), Sunday, 12 September 2004 13:45 (twenty-one years ago)

Ahhhhh. True, true.

― David R. (popshots75`), Monday, 13 September 2004 01:04 (twenty-one years ago)

What I've been wondering about (prompted by talking with my friend who's just starting to watch baseball and therefore asks a lot of questions) is why can't the batter take first if strike one or two is dropped, or if there's a wild pitch thrown for ball 1, 2, or 3. Yes, most of the time the batter would rather take his chances with his bat rather than attempting to run to first on a WP, but if a speedy player who couldn't hit for shit was up against a virtually unhitable pitcher, shouldn't he have the choice of running to first if any pitch gets away from the catcher? (Or does he??)

― oops (Oops), Monday, 13 September 2004 06:21 (twenty-one years ago)

The rules are different for the batter and the runner. On a wild pitch or a dropped strike, a runner can try to advance at his own risk (of course, he can try to advance at any time even if the ball isn't dropped).

None of that applies to the batter. However, if the batter strikes out and the third strike is dropped (or if he strikes out on a wild pitch and the ball gets away), then is the at-bat finished. Only now does the batter become a runner, and he can try to advance provided first base is open.

― Barry Bruner (Barry Bruner), Monday, 13 September 2004 12:49 (twenty-one years ago)

er, "then the at-bat is finished".

― Barry Bruner (Barry Bruner), Monday, 13 September 2004 12:50 (twenty-one years ago)

I think the batter should just be able to run whenever he thinks he's got a chance, no matter what the count is. That would be fun!

― You've Got to Pick Up Every Stitch (tracerhand), Thursday, 16 September 2004 01:08 (twenty-one years ago)

That's what I'm sayin! Pitcher bends down to tie his shoes and ZOOM!

― oops (Oops), Thursday, 16 September 2004 02:00 (twenty-one years ago)

You must be logged in to post. Please either login here, or if you are not registered, you may register here.